Cavalry Leaders Course Practice Test

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• Zone Reconnaissance is best described as selecting a zone with defined boundaries to obtain detailed information on routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces.
• Which data elements belong in an Air Corridor (AC) entry?
• Which term describes using two or more different capabilities to collect against the same information requirement?
• Which item is listed as a graphic control measure for zone reconnaissance?
• Which statement best defines the No Fire Area (NFA)?
• Which statement best describes the Decision Support Matrix?
• What best defines the difference between Zone and Area Reconnaissance?
• Which of the following is NOT a category of security focus?
• CCIR Components are which pair?
• What is the initial step in the AGADAP process?
• Engagement criteria are protocols that specify those circumstances for initiating engagement with an enemy force. They can either be restrictive or permissive.
• Which statement best defines a CCIR?
• What phrase best defines decisively engaged?
• When is Recon in Force used?
• Which item is listed as a degradation of aerial reconnaissance?
• What is the purpose of a Restricted Operating Zone (ROZ)?
• Which statement correctly describes FPOL?
• What is the purpose of the Commander's Security Group (CSG)?
• What are the three tasks for the lead element in a Moving Flank Guard?
• Named Area Of Interest (NAI) is primarily used to collect information about what?
• Which form of contact is described as non-hostile observation without direct engagement?
• What is a Target Area of Interest (TAI)?
• Dismounted Recon is defined as which?
• Every reconnaissance mission specifies a
• Which information items are associated with PIRs (enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations)?
• In the Moving Flank Guard, what is the Zone Recon tasked with?
• What is the difference between information and intelligence in military terms?
• Which of the following is true about RPOL passage point?
• Which criterion is associated with mounted reconnaissance?
• Which area security task involves protecting High-Value Targets?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a form of contact (DINOCAVE-I)?
• What best describes a cover operation?
• Which of the following is a PIR type?
• Which is a component of the AGADAP process?
• What is the role of the Cavalry Squadron?
• METT-TC (I) elements include all of the following except
• In FPOL, which statement best describes the transition at the passage point?
• Which items go into an ACA entry?
• Which MET-TTC (I) factor specifically covers information needs and management?
• ACA stands for what?
• DSM provides text to recap what?
• Which document is cited in relation to PIR definitions in the material?
• What is the purpose of protecting EEFI?
• What is the security objective?
• Who can conduct a Cover?
• Which item is the first fundamental of security under PPPOM?
• Which statement best defines RPOL?
• Which of the following is NOT a Reconnaissance Method mentioned?
• Commanders use reconnaissance pull when what conditions exist?
• In FPOL, the passage point is defined as which of the following?
• MDMP is defined as what?
• In IPOE planning, which step involves evaluating the threat?
• If a passage point is reached, what is true for the passing unit in FPOL?
• Which condition best describes mounted reconnaissance planning when time is limited?
• What is the goal of reconnaissance by fire?
• Disengagement criteria are protocols that specify circumstances under which a friendly force must break contact with direct fire and observed indirect fire to prevent decisive engagement.
• In RPOL, what does the passage point mark?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of wargaming?
• Which acronym stands for the categories of reconnaissance focus including Weather effects, Threat, Terrain, and Civil?
• In the Commander's Intent, which term represents the desired final condition after mission success?
• In area security tasks, screening is primarily used to provide what?
• Which elements comprise the Components of Commander's Intent?
• The level of aggressiveness addresses the necessity to avoid either
• EEI stands for which term?
• Which MET-TTC (I) factor concerns the availability of troops and support?
• Which units can conduct a screen?
• Which acronym represents the guard tasks consisting of Recon, Attack, Defend, Delay, and Screen?
• Who can conduct Zone Recon?
• Which plan is NOT required to be planned with a Recon in Force?
• Which area security task involves recon of the area, route, and zone?
• Which statement describes one method to initiating movement in a Moving Flank Guard?
• CRG explains
• Decisively engaged means which of the following?
• High-Payoff Target (HPT) is defined as:
• Which items are listed as part of Information Collection (Annex L)?
• In a ROZ entry, what parameter defines the lower altitude limit?
• Which term describes the integration of one or more types of reconnaissance or surveillance systems to direct follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system?
• How do recon and surveillance complement each other?
• Disengagement criteria are protocols that specify those circumstances for breaking contact to prevent decisive engagement.
• Which of the following is a degradation of Aerial Reconnaissance?
• Which area security task focuses on protecting routes and their convoys?
• In RPOL, at the passage point, which statement is true?
• Which reconnaissance method is described as emphasizing stealth and is chosen when no vehicles are available?
• Which statement accurately describes the relationship between EEFI and CCIR priority?
• Which of the following is NOT a consequence of commanders providing clear security guidance?
• Which statement best describes ACP?
• Which statement best describes the Execution Matrix?
• Recon Handover is described as the action that occurs between two elements to coordinate the transfer of information and responsibility for observation of potential threat contact, or the transfer of an assigned area from one element to another. What is this called?
• Which asset does a CFZ aim to protect?
• Which statement about screens is true?
• Which activity is described as passive, layered with technical capabilities and systems that collect information?
• Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Area Security?
• What is an Air Corridor (AC) used for?
• Which form of contact refers to observing a target using sight or sensors?
• FFIR stands for what, and what does it describe?
• What is the primary purpose of Security Operations?
• Commanders provide clear recon and security guidance that enables
• Define a Cover
• What is a Passage Lane?
• What is the primary purpose of the Cavalry Squadron?
• Which item is included as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• Reconnaissance guidance tempos specify the level of detail and aggressiveness, such as stealthy or forceful, and deliberate or rapid.
• Which of the following is NOT a principle of Mission Command?
• Information Collection (Annex L) designates which shop as responsible?
• LTIOV is the primary planning factor when determining which aspect of recon tempo?
• Which item is a graphic control measure in route reconnaissance?
• When are Screen operations appropriate?
• What does Call for Fire Zone (CFFZ) describe?
• Which is the final step of the MDMP?
• What does Reconnaissance aim to obtain about the environment?
• Who establishes an ACA?
• Which of the following is NOT a PIR type?
• Which of the following is a step in the MDMP?
• Which field is NOT included in a ROZ entry?
• What are the two security durations?
• Which description best defines a Critical Friendly Zone (CFZ)?
• Which item is used as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• Indicators are collected within NAIs or TAIs.
• What data elements go into a PAA entry?
• What is the primary use of the ACP?
• Mounted Recon is defined as which?
• Area Recon is typically used when commanders have what level of understanding of the environment?
• Definition of a Screen?
• Area Reconnaissance focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area.
• SIR is used to facilitate tasking by matching requirements to asset capabilities. Which option best reflects this function?
• In IPOE, which step involves describing the environmental effects on operations?
• Which statement best summarizes the purpose of security guidance provided by commanders?
• Reconnaissance and surveillance are connected by which principle?
• Which statement best contrasts FPOL and RPOL passage points?
• Which statement accurately describes the overall purpose of reconnaissance in military operations?
• Which item is included as a graphic control measure in area reconnaissance?
• What does the security focus define?
• Who can conduct a guard?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of security operation?
• Which term describes using two or more like capabilities to collect against the same information requirement?
• Which statement accurately describes the FPOL passage point?
• Who can conduct Route Recon?
• In IPOE, which step involves defining the operational environment?
• Screen operations are used to provide early warning over gaps not considered critical enough to require security in greater strength. This is most likely to be employed when:
• Route Reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route.
• Which PIR type relates to civilian populations and societal impacts?
• Recon Handover Line is best described as:
• What is the key distinction between zone and area reconnaissance?
• The DSM provides texts to recap which elements?
• Which area designation is the No Fire Area (NFA)?
• TAI stands for Target Area of Interest.
• Which items go into a ROZ entry?
• Which of the following is a recognized type of reconnaissance operation?
• Route Reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route.
• Reconnaissance in Force is a type of reconnaissance operation that involves:
• Which form of contact relates to electromagnetic means?
• What does LTIOV stand for?
• Which scenario best illustrates decisively engaged?
• What is the primary role of the Advance Guard?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Reconnaissance Guidance?
• Define Area Security
• Which graphic control measure is listed for route reconnaissance?
• The level of detail in CRG establishes the necessary number of tasks based on the amount of time available
• Area Reconnaissance focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area.
• Which criterion is associated with using dismounted reconnaissance?
• Indicators are defined as items of information that reflect an enemy's intent or capability and are collected within NAIs or TAIs.
• What is the Essential Element of Friendly Information (EEFI)?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of guard?
• What do bypass criteria specify?
• Which is a listed method of movement for a moving flank guard?
• What does BHO describe?
• A reconnaissance mission is defined by its
• Which option is a form of contact that uses electromagnetic means?
• NAI stands for Named Area of Interest; TAI stands for Target Area of Interest.
• What best defines Surveillance in reconnaissance?
• If the security force is overextended, which action is described?
• Definition of Reconnaissance
• Priority Intelligence Requirements are designed to help the commander understand the threat and other aspects of the operational environment.
• Which statement best describes the difference between FPOL and RPOL passage points?
• How is surveillance distinct from reconnaissance?
• Priority Intelligence Requirement (PIR) are tied to either an NAI or TAI.
• What is the correct sequence for the SQDN CASEVAC flow?
• Who typically conducts route classification?
• Which statement best defines Mission Command?
• Who can conduct Recon in Force?
• Which statement best defines FPOL?
• Which statement best describes the role of Arial recon?
• What is the first step of the MDMP?
• What is the purpose of Reconnaissance in Force?
• Zone Reconnaissance is defined as:
• Which statement best describes a key aspect of Mission Command's execution?
• In RPOL, at the passage point, what is true?
• Which of the following is a principle of Mission Command?
• In a ROZ entry, which field defines when the restricted airspace becomes active?
• What defines a Gap in military terms?
• Which option correctly matches the concept with its description?
• Reconnaissance tempo is defined as what?
• Bypass criteria are
• The level of detail in CRG establishes the necessary number of tasks based on the amount of time available
• Which statement expresses a fundamental of reconnaissance regarding information reporting?
• What is the Engagement Area?
• What is the main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations?
• Which of the following is a reconnaissance type?
• Which element provides the link between sensors and reconnaissance operations?
• Which statement among the following is a fundamental of reconnaissance?
• Reconnaissance push refines which element to help finalize the plan?
• What is the purpose of a Named Area Of Interest (NAI)?
• Commanders use reconnaissance push when they have what condition?
• Which of the following is a component of Commanders Security Guidance?
• Which statement describes the second method for initiating movement in a Moving Flank Guard?
• Zone Recon is most appropriate under which conditions?
• Who can conduct Area Recon?
• Which Reconnaissance Method involves personnel moving on foot?
• Which graphic control measure is included in the area reconnaissance set?
• Where can a screen not be conducted?
• What is BHL?
• What is a Contact Point?
• Reconnaissance guidance tempos determine the level of detail and aggressiveness, including whether the approach is stealthy or forceful and deliberate or rapid.
• What is a decision point in military planning?
• Which of the following best describes a Reconnaissance mission?
• Which graphic control measure is included in the route reconnaissance set?
• What element must a Brigade plan to retain when conducting a Cover?
• The Commanders Primary Tasks During the Operations Process, abbreviated LUVDAD, stand for which sequence?
• In FPOL, what does the passage point mark?
• High-Value Target (HVT) is defined as:
• Which statement differentiates High-Value Target (HVT) from High-Payoff Target (HPT)?